This is a Listening practice test fot the Cambridge Proficiency Test CPE.
There are 3 parts and it takes around 40 minutes. read the instructions for each part carefully before you start.
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Question 1 of 4
1. Question
You will hear three different extracts.
For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
There are two questions for each extract.
Extract One - You hear two friends talking about a new office building.
1 The woman says that in the building some people are having difficulty (B)
A coping with the new technology.
B adjusting to a new concept of work.
C working without clear supervision.
2 She thinks one effect of people moving around the building will be to (C)
A promote physical as well as mental well-being.
B create a more productive work force.
C provide useful contact with other employees.
ExtractTwo - You hear two friends discussing business travel.
3 The woman believes that in future companies should (A)
A fly only with airlines that have an eco-friendly policy.
B concentrate on the use of video conferencing.
C reduce overall levels of executive travel.
4 The man thinks that the prime consideration for transport providers should be (B)
A increasing revenue.
B thinking long-term.
C creating jobs.
ExtractThree - You hear two friends talking about some research.
5 What is the man's attitude to the research? (C)
A He is doubtful about the methods used.
B He is surprised by its findings.
C He is dismissive of the concept behind it.
6 During the discussion, the woman reveals her (B)
A sympathy towards the subjects of the experiments.
This is a Listening practice test fot the Cambridge Proficiency Test CPE.
There are 3 parts and it takes around 40 minutes. read the instructions for each part carefully before you start.
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Question 1 of 4
1. Question
You will hear three different extracts. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. There are two questions for each extract. In the exam you will hear each extract twice.
Extract One - You hear a psychologist talking about confidence.
1 What does the speaker say about the word 'confidence'? (C)
A Most dictionary definitions of it are inaccurate.
B It means a great deal more than simply 'self-assurance'.
C It is a hard word to define precisely.
2 What does the speaker say about having confidence? (A)
A There is no one who doesn't wish to have it.
B It frequently changes into feeling superior.
C Some people are incapable of it .
Extract Two - You hear a critic talking about a new book.
3 The speaker says that Goldman's latest book contains (C)
A views even more negative than those in his previous book.
B confusing comments on actors and directors .
C criticism that may be unnecessarily harsh.
4 The speaker believes that Goldman (B)
A exaggerates the difficulties of his occupation.
B has an unfavourable opinion of his own occupation.
C is unaware of how much his work is admired.
Extract Three - You hear a musician talking about American music.
5 What does the speaker say about the James Brown records he mentions? (A)
A They conveyed a sense of joy.
B They were surprise hits.
C They were totally unlike Brown's other records.
6 The speaker says that people growing up in Britain in the 1960s (B)
A had only a limited view of what America was like.
B had the same view of America as Americans did.
C felt that American music was more varied than British music.
Stop the re cording when you hear That 's the end of Part 1 :
Question 2 of 4
2. Question
PART 2
You will hear part of a radio programme about toys, in which the development of a famous toy called Meccano is described. For questions 7-15, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
Frank Hornby worked for a (7)(meat importer)
He was inspired by a book called (8)(Self-Help, Self Help)
The (9)(submarine) he invented did not work properly.
He started to consider the idea of (10)(interchangeable) parts.
He decided that the parts would need to have a (11)(series of holes) in them.
The first parts he made were from a big (12)(piece of copper)
The first object that was built with the new system was a (13)(crane)
The first name given to the new toy was (14)(Mechanics Made Easy)
Each Meccano set could be made bigger with the use of an (15)(Extension Pack)
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 2:
Question 3 of 4
3. Question
You will hear an interview with someone whose work is concerned with the design and marketing of products. For questions 1 6-20 choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
16 David says that the session he has just conducted (C)
A was longer than most sessions he conducts.
B illustrates his own beliefs about focus groups.
C is an example of a new approach to visual planning.
D concentrated as much on positive as negative attitudes to cleaning.
17 What did David know about cleaning products before the session?(A)
A Some people could not make up their minds which ones to buy.
B Manufacturers were concerned about falling sales in them.
C Some of them looked too dull to appeal to shoppers.
D People felt that false claims were made about them.
18 One of the comments made during the session referred to(D)
A regarding the choice of a cleaning product as unimportant.
B cleaning products all looking the same.
C the deliberate misleading of shoppers.
D buying a cleaning product because it is familiar.
19 David says that what the women produced when they were split into groups(A)
A did not focus on what cleaning products actually do.
B presented contrasting images.
C was not what they had expected to produce.
D was similar to the presentation of other kinds of product.
20 David says that he has concluded from the session that(B)
A his firm's methods will need to change slightly.
B he was right to question a certain assumption.
C cleaning products do not fit into a general pattern.
D what he had previously thought was not entirely correct.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 3:
Question 4 of 4
4. Question
PART 4 You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about their jobs. You will hear the recording twice. While you listen, you must complete both tasks.
TASK ONE
For questions 21-25, choose from the list (A-H) what each speaker likes most about the job.
A the atmosphere
B the challenge
C the variety
D the opportunities for promotion
E the financial benefits
F the responsibility
G the lack of supervision
H the training given
TASK TWO
For questions 26-30, choose from the list (A-H) what each speaker dislikes about the job.
This is a Listening practice test fot the Cambridge Proficiency Test CPE.
There are 3 parts and it takes around 40 minutes. read the instructions for each part carefully before you start.
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Question 1 of 4
1. Question
PART 1
You will hear three different extracts. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
There are two questions for each. extract. In the exam you will hear each extract twice.
Extract One - You hear part of a radio programme about British attitudes.
1 The speaker says that one example of British people's pessimism is their(A)
A calm response to problems that affect them personally.
B acceptance of what they are told by administrators.
C tendency to exaggerate potential problems.
2 What does the speaker say about British children? (B)
A They come to appreciate irony later in life.
B It comes naturally to them to be pessimistic.
C They are aware of having a peculiar sense of humour.
Extract Two - You hear the introduction to a radio science programme.
3 The speaker describes a process by which the brain (C)
A changes previous perceptions about events.
B discards irrelevant information about events.
C waits before focusing on events.
4 What does the speaker say about the research he mentions? (B)
A It has been influenced by the methods used for live TV broadcasts.
B It adds useful information to what is already known.
C It is likely to be disproved by other research.
Extract Three - You hear the introduction to a radio programme about inventors.
5 The speaker says that Edison's comment (C)
A reflects the naivety of inventors.
B sums up the unpredictability of an inventor's life.
C is as true today as when he made it.
6 What does the speaker say about the rules concerning English patents? (B)
A He can understand why they remain in force.
B They have always put inventors at a disadvantage.
C Some inventors do not abide by them.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 1:
Question 2 of 4
2. Question
PART 2
You will hear part of a radio report about interactive science and technology centres in Britain.
For questions 7-15, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
The area on which the· National Stone Centre stands has been used for a long time for the mining of (7) (lead and limestone)
Visitors to the centre are surprised to discover how much stone people (8) (consume, eat)
Examples of the use of stone in construction shown are (9) (tunnels and tennis courts)
The headmaster describes the centre as an excellent (10) (teaching resource)
The first interactive gallery in Britain was called (11) (Launch Pad)
At Techniquest, there are structures which (12) (roll uphill)
At Techniquest, a special (13) (dentist’s chair) is used for teaching people about centrifugal force.
People can learn about the effect that (14) (sound waves) can have on each other at Techniquest.
A dragon is used for teaching people about (15) (control systems) at Techniquest.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 2:
Question 3 of 4
3. Question
PART 3
You will hear an interview with someone who reviews hotels. For questions 16-20 choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
16 What does Paddy say about some readers of her column? (D)
A They suspect that she enjoys criticising hotels.
B Her attitude to hotels has changed because of their response.
C Her comments match their experiences of hotels.
D They prefer reading about hotels they would not want to visit.
17 What does Paddy say about some hotel-keepers?(B)
A They sometimes have to force themselves to have a sense of humour.
B They would be more suited to a different profession.
C They expect to receive negative comments about their hotels.
D They are surprised that they become friends of hers.
18 Paddy says that some hotel-keepers she has contacted about the book have(C)
A realised that she does not really have an assistant called Emily.
B corrected inaccuracies that were in her review of their hotels.
C responded favourably despite criticisms she had made.
D made her wonder whether her reviews of their hotels were unfair.
19 Paddy says that one hotel-keeper she spoke to told her that(A)
A other people are unlikely to be treated in the same way in hotels as she is.
B he was unwilling to discuss some of the comments in her review.
C her reviews did not have as much influence as she believed.
D he no longer wanted his hotel to appear in the book.
20 The same owner also told her that(D)
A he had passed information about her to other hotels.
B he resented her description of him in her review.
C he did not understand why she wanted to put his hotel in her book.
D there was nothing distinctive about her physical appearance.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 3:
Question 4 of 4
4. Question
PART 4
You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about leisure activities they take part in. You will hear the recording twice.
While you listen, you must complete both tasks.
TASK ONE
For questions 21-25, choose from the list {A-H) what the leisure activity involves for the speaker.
A organising events
B raising money
C travelling to many places
D performing
E attending regular meetings
F spending significant sums of money
G doing a course
H spending a lot of time
TASK TWO
For questions 26-30, choose from the list {A-H) what each speaker particularly enjoys about the leisure activity.
This is a Listening practice test fot the Cambridge Proficiency Test CPE.
There are 3 parts and it takes around 40 minutes. read the instructions for each part carefully before you start.
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Question 1 of 4
1. Question
PART 1
You will hear three different extracts.
For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
There are two questions for each extract. In the exam you will hear each extract twice.
Extract One - You hear part of a talk about negotiating with others.
1. The speaker says that both soft and hard ways of negotiating(B)
are more suitable in some situations than in others.
tend to result in outcomes that were not anticipated.
indicate a lack of confidence on the part of those using them.
2. The speaker says that principled negotiation involves(C)
accepting that life can be unfair.
greater effort from both sides.
the use of objective criteria.
Extract Two - You hear part of a radio programme about a pottery.
3. What does the reporter emphasise about the pottery?(C)
how seldom anyone visits it these days
how deceptive its appearance is
how much it seems to belong to a previous era
4. When describing the history of the pottery, Roly Curtis(A)
mentions a problem common to many potteries.
refers to a mistake he believes was made.
expresses support for what his father did.
Extract Three - You hear part of a radio programme about the stars of silent films.
5. The speaker says that Harold Lloyd became very successful because he(B)
acted on a suggestion made by a colleague.
changed the character he portrayed in films.
became more ambitious than he had previously been.
6. The speaker says that Lloyd's career suffered because(A)
his character's attitude ceased to be appealing.
he was reluctant to make films with sound.
he lost confidence in his abilities as a performer.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 1:
Question 2 of 4
2. Question
PART 2
You will hear part of a radio programme, in which the history of Ty-Phoo Tipps – a brand of tea that is well-known in Britain – is described. For questions 7-15, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
In 1835, William Sumner appeared in a publication called the (7) (National Commercial Directory)
At the beginning of the 20th century, the Sumners' business sold (8) (wines and spirits) in addition to groceries.
Mary found that a certain type of tea was good for (9) (indigestion)
John was told that people would not wish to buy tea that resembled (10) (dust)
John thought that the name he chose for the tea sounded like a word that was(11) (oriental)
The name of the tea has a double 'p' because of a (12) (printer's error)
To promote the tea, customers were offered a big (13) (jar of cream)
John wanted people to know his tea came from the (14) (edge of the leaf)
John was given an honour for his (15) (charitable work)
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 2:
Question 3 of 4
3. Question
PART 3
You will hear an interview with someone whose family spent a year living without television.
For questions 16-20 choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
16 One reason why the family decided not to have a television was that(A)
A the reception from the communal aerial was often poor.
B they did not think the satellite technician would do the job properly.
C linking up with the communal aerial was complicated.
D they preferred to enjoy the beauty of their new surroundings.
17 One thing that Miranda enjoyed about not having a television was(C)
A telling other people about what they did instead.
B returning to hobbies they had previously given up.
C observing the reaction of others when they found out.
D feeling more energetic during the evening.
18 Miranda says that one disadvantage of not having a television was(D)
A the fact that they could not follow their favourite series.
B a constant desire to be more up-to-date with the news.
C being unable to discuss topics they had previously discussed.
D feeling out of touch with what other people talked about.
19 What does Miranda say about getting connected again?(A)
A She felt it would be of some benefit to the whole family.
B She agreed because her attitude towards television had changed.
C She initially disagreed with her husband about doing so.
D She felt that they were doing so because they were lazy people.
20 Miranda says that since they got a television again, her children(B)
A are more able to distinguish good programmes from rubbish.
B sometimes refuse to watch it when she suggests they do so.
C have decided not to return to the habit of watching it.
D never watch it simply because they are feeling lazy.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 3:
Question 4 of 4
4. Question
PART 4
You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about hearing some unexpected news. You will hear the recording twice.
While you listen, you must complete both tasks.
TASK ONE
For questions 21-25, choose from the list (A-H) what the news involved.
A a chance to travel
B a job application
c a request for a favour
D the cancellation of an arrangement
E a financial matter
F an offer of accommodation
G someone's anger
H an invitation to an event
TASK TWO
For questions 26-30, from the list (A-H) how each speaker feels with regard to the news.
This is a Listening practice test fot the Cambridge Proficiency Test CPE.
There are 3 parts and it takes around 40 minutes. read the instructions for each part carefully before you start.
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Question 1 of 4
1. Question
You will hear three different extracts.
For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
There are two questions for each extract. In the exam you will hear each extract twice.
Extract One You hear a reviewer on a radio programme talking about a book.
1 The speaker says that the book's title refers to the point at which(B)
A social epidemics are at their height.
B something becomes a social epidemic.
C people become concerned about social epidemics.
2 The speaker says, that in her opinion, the book(A)
A presents some challenging conclusions.
B is less complex than it may appear.
C uses terminology that may confuse readers .
Extract Two You hear a reporter on a radio programme talking as he climbs a big rock.
3 One question the speaker asks himself is(C)
A why he feels the way he does.
B where his climbing partner has gone.
C what has motivated him to climb the rock.
4 The speaker says that at this exact moment(B)
A he doesn't care about the risk he is taking.
B he is relishing the experience.
C he feels that age is irrelevant.
Extract Three You hear part of a radio programme about literary festivals.
5 The interviewer says that when writers appear at events at literary festivals,(B)
A they dislike being asked difficult questions.
B they find the experience easier if they read their own work.
C they seldom prepare as thoroughly as they should.
6 Why, according to William, do writers like meeting readers?(A)
A Writers are made to feel they have succeeded in their aim.
B Writers want readers to know what they are really like.
C Readers give writers ideas for future work.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 1:
Correct
Incorrect
Question 2 of 4
2. Question
You will hear someone called Karen Williams talking about her career.
For questions 7-1 5, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.
In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
At the end of her first work experience, Karen spent two days (7)(planning rotas) and checking rooms with the floor housekeeper.
Her last work experience was spent in the hotel's (8)(front office).
The subject of Karen's next course was (9)(Hospitality Management).
During her HND course, the subjects she had to study were business studies, hotel management, human resource management and (10)(operational techniques).
The topic of her report was (11)(green issues) in hotels.
In her report, she wrote reviews of various (12)(give-aways).
She joined an organisation with the initials (13)(HCIMA).
She got information from a magazine called (14)(Caterer and Hotelkeeper).
In her present job, she has to deal with problems caused by the hotel being (15)(overbooked).
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 2:
Correct
Incorrect
Question 3 of 4
3. Question
You will hear an interview with someone who consulted a ‘life coach’ to improve her life.
For questions 16-20 choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
In the exam you will hear the piece twice.
16 Brigid says that she consulted a life coach because(D)
A she had read a great deal about them.
B both her work and home life were getting worse.
C other efforts to improve her life had failed.
D the changes she wanted to make were only small ones.
17 What did Brigid's coach tell her about money?(A)
A It would be very easy for Brigid to get a lot of it.
B Brigid's attitude towards it was uncharacteristic of her.
C Brigid placed too much emphasis on it in her life.
D Few people have the right attitude towards it.
18 What does Brigid say about her reaction to her coach's advice on money?(C)
A She felt silly repeating the words her coach gave her.
B She tried to hide the fact that she found it ridiculous .
C She felt a lot better as a result of following it.
D She found it difficult to understand at first.
19 What does Brigid say happened during the other sessions?(A)
A She was told that most people's problems had the same cause.
B Her powers of concentration improved.
C Some things she was told to do proved harder than others .
D She began to wonder why her problems had arisen in the first place.
20 What has Brigid concluded?(B)
A The benefits of coaching do not compensate for the effort required.
B She was too unselfish before she had coaching.
C She came to expect too much of her coach.
D It is best to limit the number of coaching sessions you have.
Stop the recording when you hear 'That's the end of Part 3:
Correct
Incorrect
Question 4 of 4
4. Question
You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about cities they have visited.
You will hear the recording twice. While you listen, you must complete both tasks.
TASK ONE
For questions 21-25, choose from the list (A-H) why each speaker visited the city.
A for an interview
B as part of a holiday
C to see friends
D for a conference
E to show it to others
F to see it again
G to see a particular building
H for research purposes
TASK TWO
For questions 26-30, choose each speaker's opinion of the city from the list (A-H).
You will hear a number of different recordings and you have to answer questions on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions and you will have a chance to check your work.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
5 points
SECTION 1
Questions 1-5 – Choose the appropriate letter
1. Where is the administration building? (C)
2. How many people are waiting in the queue? (A)
A 50 B 100 C 200 D 300
3. What does the woman order for lunch? (B)
4. What does the woman order to drink? (D)
5. How much money does the woman give the man? (D)
A $2.00 B $3.00 C $3.50 D $5.00
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
5 points
Questions 6-10 – Complete the registration form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Name of student: (6) (Julia Perkins)
Address: (7) Flat 5/ (15 Waratah Road)
Town: (8) (Brisbane)
Tel: (9) (to be advised, not connected, no phone, none)
Course: (10) (first year Law)
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
2 points
Questions 11-12 – Choose the appropriate letter
11. What did the man buy for her to eat? (C)
12. What must the students do as part of registration at the university? (D)
A Check the notice board in the Law Faculty.
B Find out about lectures.
C Organise tutorial groups.
D Pay the union fees.
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
9 points
SECTION 2
Questions 13-21 – Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
STUDENT BANKING
Recommended Banks
Location
Barclays
Realty Sqaure
National Westminster
Example:Preston Park
Lloyds
City Plaza
Midland
(13)(Hope Street)
Note: May not be allowed all facilities given to resident students.
Funding
Must provide (14)(evidence) I can support myself.
Services will depend on personal circumstances and discretion of Bank Manager.
Opening an account
Take with me: (15)(passport) and letter of enrolment.
Recommended account: (16)(current, current account, student, student account)
Bank supplies: (17)(chequebook) and chequecard which guarantees cheques.
Other services
Cashcard: (you can (18)(withdraw, draw out, take out, draw) cash at any time.)
Switch/Delta cards: (take the money (19)(directly from, right out of) the account.)
Overdraft
Must have (20)(permission of bank, permission from bank)
Sometimes must pay interest.
Opening times
Most banks open until (21)(4.30 pm, 4:30 pm, to 5 pm, 4:30 p.m, to 5 p.m) during the week.
Some open for a limited time on Saturdays.
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
4 points
SECTION 3
Questions 22-25 – Complete the factsheet. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
FACTSHEET - Aluminium Cans
• (22) (300 million) produced every day in the US — more cans produced than nails or (23) (paper clips)
• each can weighs 0.48 ounces — thinner than two (24) (magazine pages, pieces of paper, pages)
• can take more than 90 pounds of pressure per square inch — over (25)(three times) the pressure of a car tyre.
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
6 points
Questions 26-31 – Label the aluminium can. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
(26) (thicker)
(27) (label)
(28) (a dome, dome)
(29) (flange)
(30) (25 %, 25%)
(31) (scored opening)
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
11 points
SECTION 4
Questions 32-42 – Complete the lecture notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Purpose of the mini lecture
To experience To find out about
(32) (a university lecture)(33)(Sports Studies, sports studies programme)
The three strands of Sports Studies are:
a Sports psychology
b Sports (34) (management)
c Sports physiology
a) · The psychologists work with (35) (top athletes)
· They want to discover what (36) (makes winners, makes them win, makes people win)
b) · Sports marketing looks at (37) (market forces)
· Sport now competes with (38) (other leisure activities, leisure activities)
· Spectators want (39) (entertainment, to be entertained)
c) · Sports physiology is also known as (40) (exercise science)
· Macro levels look at (41)(fitness testing, body measurements)
· Micro level looks at (42)(cellular research, cellular change, body cell)
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Question 1 of 13
1. Question
10 points
Section One
Questions 1-10 – Complete the notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
KATE
Her first impressions of the town
EXAMPLE: Quiet
Type of accommodation
(1)(student accommodation, hostel)
Her feelings about the accommodation
(2)(awful food)
Her feelings about the other students
(3)(not friendly, kept to themselves)
Name of course
Enviromental Studies
Difficulties experienced on the course
(4)(lecturers too busy, lecturers busy)
Suggestions for improving the course
(5)(regular meetings, meetings with lecturers, fortnightly meetings)
LUKI
First type of accommodation
(6)(family, homestay)
Problem with the first accommodation
(7)(lot of noise, children made noise, difficult to study)
Second type of accommodation
(8)(student house)
Name of course
(9)(Bachelor of Computing, computing)
Comments about the course
Computer room busy
Suggestions for improving the course
(10)(reserve computer time)
Question 2 of 13
2. Question
10 points
Section 2
Questions 11-20 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
There are many kinds of bicycles available:
• racing
• touring
• (11) (mountain)
• ordinary
They vary in price and (12)(quality)
Prices range from $50.00 to $(13) (2,000, 2000)
Single speed cycles are suitable for (14) (short rides)
Three speed cycles are suitable for (15) (town riding, shopping, town shopping)
Five and ten speed cycles are suitable for longer distances, hills and (16) (serious touring)
Ten speed bikes are better because they are (17)(similar, almost the same) in price but (18) (better in quality, better in components)
Buying a cycle is like (19) (buying clothes)
The size of the bicycle is determined by the size of the (20) (frame)
Question 3 of 13
3. Question
1 points
Section 3 – Choose the correct option
At first Fiona thinks that Martin’s tutorial topic is
Question 4 of 13
4. Question
1 points
22. According to Martin, the banana
Question 5 of 13
5. Question
1 points
Fiona listens to Martin because she
Question 6 of 13
6. Question
1 points
24. According to Martin, bananas were introduced into Australia from
Question 7 of 13
7. Question
6 points
Questions 25-30 Complete Martin’s notes Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Commercially grown banana plant
Each banana tree produces (25)(one bunch)of bananas.
On modern plantations in tropical conditions a tree can bear fruit after (26) (15 months, fifteen months)
Banana trees prefer to grow (27)(uphill, on hillsides) and they require rich soil and (28)(lots of water, plenty of water).
The fruit is often protected by (29)(plastic bags)
Ripe bananas emit a gas which helps other (30)(bananas to ripen, ones to ripen, ones ripen).
Question 8 of 13
8. Question
2 points
Questions 31 and 32 – Circle the TWO correct boxes.
Comsumption of Australian bananas
Question 9 of 13
9. Question
1 points
Section 4 – Choose the correct option
33. The focus of the lecture series is on
Question 10 of 13
10. Question
1 points
34. The lecture will be given by
Question 11 of 13
11. Question
1 points
This week’s lecture is on
Question 12 of 13
12. Question
4 points
Questions 36-39 Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
A balanced diet
A balanced diet will give you enough vitamins for normal daily living.
Vitamins in food can be lost through (36)(cooking)Types of vitamins:
(a) Fat soluble vitamins are stored by the body.
(b) Water soluble vitamins - not stored,
so you need a (37) (regular daily intake, daily intake)Getting enough vitamins
Eat (38)(a variety, variety) of foods.
Buy plenty of vegetables and store them
in (39)(the dark, the fridge, a cool place, a dark place)
Question 13 of 13
13. Question
2 points
Questions 40-41 Complete the diagram by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the boxes provided.
EXAMPLE:
Try to avoid sugar, salt and butter
40.(eat in moderation, not too much) milk, lean meat, fish, nuts, eggs
41.(eat lots, eat most) bread, vegetables and fruit
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
6 points
Section 1
Questions 1-6 – Complete the notes
Example: Name of Agent FLAGSTONE
Areas deal with: (1) (city centre, the city centre, the city centre itself), north suburbs
Rent: from (2) £ (250, 250 pounds, two hundred fifty) to £ (3)(500, about 500, five hundred, about five hundred) a month.
Depends on: the area, availability of (4) (a garden, garden), garage
Properties available: West Park Road - rent (5) £ (325, three hundred twenty-five) a month, including the water bill
Tithe Road - rent £ 380 a month, including (6) (the telephone, telephone, the phone , phone) rental
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
4 points
(Questions 7-10 – Complete the notes
Viewing arrangements: meet at office on (7) (Wednesday, Wednesday afternoon, Wed) at 5.00 p.m.
Need: letter from bank, reference from (8) (your employer, employer)
Must: give (9) (two weeks, 2 weeks, a fortnightly, fourteen days, 14 days) notice of moving in, give deposit of (10) (1 month's rent, one month's rent), pay for contract
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
2 points
Section 2
Questions 11 and 12 – Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
11. Who is Mrs Sutton worried about?(her daugher, her daugher Anna, Anna, Ana)
12. What is the name for a group of family doctors working in the same building together?(a practice, practice, practices)
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
5 points
Questions 13-17 – Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Name of Health Centre
Number of Doctors
Other information
Information about doctors
Dean End
(13)(6, six, about 6, about six)
Appointment system (15) (better, more efficient, faster)than South Hay
Dr Jones is good with (16) (eldery, old, older)patients.
Dr Shaw is good with small children.
South Hay
(14)(4, four, about 4, about four)
Building less modern than Dean End
Dr Williams helps people with (17)(back problems, back trouble, bad backs)
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
1 points
Question 18 – Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.
Doctors start seeing patients at the Health Centre from(9, nine, 9.00).o’clock.
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
2 points
Question 19 – Choose TWO options.
Which TWO groups of patients receive free medication?
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
10 points
Section 3
Complete the notes – Write NUMBERS AND/OR NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Notes on Aplication
Name:
Joanathan Briggs
Degree:
Economics and (21)(Politics)
Teaching experience:
Volunteer Teacher
Location:
(22)(West Africa, Africa)
Dates:
(23)(1990 to 1992, 1990-1992)
Volunteer Organisation:
(24)(Teach South)
Type of school
(25)(rural cooperative, rural co-operative)
Subjects taught
·(26)(Geography) Forms 1,2 and 3
· Englsih Form (27)(five, 5)
· Agricultural Science Form 6
Other responsibilities:
Ran school farm
Reason for wanting to leave in first year:
·(28)(very homesick, homesick, missed his family, homesickness)
· few teaching resources
Reasons for wanting to extend tour:
· obtained funds for farm buildings
Reasons for wanting to train to teach Geography:
·It is his (29) (favourite subject , favorite)
·It has many (30)(useful applications, applications)
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
6 points
Section 4
Questions 31-36 – Choose the correct letters A-C.
31. Which column of the bar chart represents the figures quoted?(A)32. According to the speaker, the main cause of back pain in women is(B) A pregnancy.
B osteoporosis.
C lack of exercise.
33.As treatment for back pain the Clinic mainly recommends(B) A pain killers.
B relaxation therapy.
C exercise routines.
34. The back is different from other parts of the body because(C) A it is usually better at self-repair.
B a back injury is usually more painful.
C its response to injury often results in more damage.
35. Bed rest is advised(A) A for a maximum of two days.
B for extreme pain only.
C for pain lasting more than two days.
36. Being overweight(B) A is a major source of back pain.
B worsens existing back pain.
C reduces the effectiveness of exercise.
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
4 points
Questions 37-40 – Choose the correct option
Sort elements
Recommended in certain circumstances
Strongly recommended
Recommended in certain circumstances
Not recommended
37. Buy special orthopaedic chairs
38. Buy shock-absorving inserts
39. Wear flat shoes
40. Buy TENS machine
After the listening test you can check your answers by reading the script
According to writer Mark Harris, Hollywood is in deep crisis. He says that the atmosphere in the movie-making capital of the world is so cautious that most executives are afraid to try new formulas. So moviegoers are left with a continuous repetition of the same titles. This year alone, Hollywood has produced “Spy Kids 4,” “Final Destination 5,” more “Harry Potter,” more “Pirates of the Caribbean,” more and more of what we’ve seen before. There are common themes that both filmmakers and brands return to, time and time again.
In his book, Mark Harris asks: How did we get here? Today he has been invited to talk to reporter Barbara Walker about his recent article “The Day the Movies Died” and maybe he will be able to answer that question for us.
BARBARA WALKER: Mark, welcome to our show and thank you very much for accepting our invitation to talk about the situation in Hollywood.
MARK HARRIS: Thanks so much for inviting me. It’s a pleasure being here to talk to you and your listeners.
BARBARA WALKER: So how did we get here? In your book you say that Hollywood has almost completely lost interest in making any kind of movies for adult audiences.
Mr. HARRIS: Well, I think one of the reasons is that it now costs, in many cases, more to market a movie than it does to make the movie: up to $40 to $50 million for a regular studio movie, sometimes more for a big adventure movie. And because marketing is so expensive, the people who pay for it, that is, the advertisers, can decide what movies get made in the first place. And what they want are movies that are brands , and there’s not a lot of room for adult dramas based on just the quality of the story.
BARBARA WALKER: I’m interested in the examples that you offer in your book, and I want you to explain something. You said the problem, that is, the fact that there are very few movies made for adult audiences can in part be found in one specific film, “Top Gun”, perhaps the biggest success by Tom Cruise.
Mr. HARRIS: Exactly. A movie made in 1986. I think that that moment, the “Top Gun” moment, in the mid-’80s, was a moment when movies changed from being about the content to being about the image. In other words, if you put all the right elements together – the star, the noisy soundtrack, the special effects, the poster, and the slogan – you can actually make a movie that will appeal to the largest possible audience, a movie that isn’t necessarily very good quality, but that a lot of people can identify with.
BARBARA WALKER: So after “Top Gun”, what kind of movies stopped getting made? What kind of movies for adults are we missing? Could a movie like “Marathon Man” or “Taxi Driver” or “The Godfather” be made and be successful now?
Mr. HARRIS: Well, it actually can be very good business to make adult dramas, like ‘The Godfather” if you make them for, say, $40 million or less. You know, if you keep the cost under control, you can do very, very well. So, you know, even a movie like “The Social Network,” still needs a movie studio to say yes to it and pay for it, and that’s what’s really hard right now.
BARBARA WALKER: There’s another thing that I want to talk to you about before I let you go. You say that in these days, when marketing is everything, the audience is divided into groups that are based on age and gender. And as I read that sentence, my goodness, it is so depressing to find out that women in Hollywood are basically treated like garbage.
Mr. HARRIS: It’s absolutely true. If you’re over 25, you’re old. If you’re under 25, you’re not. You know, as someone who’s much older than 25, I’m not happy about this either, but if you’re a woman over 25, you’re probably in the most neglected of those four groups. Movie producers really assume that unless there’s a Sandra Bullock movie, moviegoers would probably rather stay at home. And it becomes a vicious circle because, of course, the fewer movies that are made for adults, the more people will stay home.
BARBARA WALKER: One more point before you go. Weíve heard that a sequel to “Top Gun”, Top Gun 2 is in production. Is that correct?
Mr. HARRIS: That’s right, because all of the kids who loved “Top Gun” when they saw it in their late teens and early 20s are now the bosses in the studios. And that maybe is not such great news for those of us who love movies other than “Top Gun.”
BARBARA WALKER: Mark, I’m afraid that’s all the time we have for today. Thank you very much for this very interesting and entertaining chat.
Mr. HARRIS: Thank you.
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